It seems to me that when I order something, until I have it in hand is not mine. But I see all the time where the seller is wanting the buyer to pay for the insuring of an item including a gun.
Example to argue my case: When a seller sends a gun to the purchaser, that person cannot have it until it is transferred to him/her by the receiving FFL.
Bad logic or your logic?
Example to argue my case: When a seller sends a gun to the purchaser, that person cannot have it until it is transferred to him/her by the receiving FFL.
Bad logic or your logic?